I am reading the book << Gauge theory of elementary particle physics >>. In chapter 15, it presents a model having finite-energy solution. First, we have a $1+1D$ spacetime model \begin{equation} \mathcal{L}=\int dx [\frac{1}{2}(\partial_0 \phi)^2-\frac{1}{2}(\partial_x \phi)^2-V(\phi)] \end{equation} where \begin{equation} V(\phi)=\frac{\lambda}{2}(\phi^2-a^2)^2,~~~a^2=\mu^2/\lambda. \end{equation} Now we have four static (time-independent) solutions to equation of motion, and they will give finite energy: ground-state configuration: $\pm a$ and kink (anti-kink) solutions: $\pm a \tanh (\mu x)$. The so-called topological charge is given by \begin{equation} Q=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \partial_x \phi dx=n(2a), \end{equation} where $n=0$ for two ground states, $n=\pm1$ for kink (anti-kink).
The book claims there is no transition between kink (anti-kink) and ground states and they are stable. So how can I see there is no transition between kink $a\tanh \mu x$ and ground state $+a$? Is this because of time-independence?
Further, the book gives an intuitive explanation: converting kink to ground state needs penetrating barrier around $\phi=0$ and will take infinite amount of energy. How to prove this point mathematically?