I'm having trouble finding a simple answer to this question (maybe because there isn't one), but I'm just confused about how the Schrödinger Equation would look for two electrons. I understand that it would exist in 6 dimensional configuration space, but how does the potential look? It's confusing that the potential would be different for each electron depending on where the other one is.
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2$\begingroup$ The Wikipedia article on the helium atom has a detailed explanation of this. Can you give us some idea what parts of that you think are problematic? $\endgroup$– John RennieCommented Jul 9, 2020 at 16:16
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$\begingroup$ The Wikipedia article is just a bit too technical for me. Is there no intuition for how two quantum particles interact? I guess that's really what I'm asking. $\endgroup$– Jeff BassCommented Jul 9, 2020 at 16:22
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$\begingroup$ Do you mean an atom with 2 electrons? Or just 2 electrons without a nucleus? $\endgroup$– Thomas FritschCommented Jul 9, 2020 at 16:51
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$\begingroup$ Just two electrons. I'm just trying to get an intuitive grasp on quantum interactions. It's very possible there's a simpler example. I'm essentially looking for a basic "visualization" for how this wave looks in the 6D configuration space. $\endgroup$– Jeff BassCommented Jul 9, 2020 at 16:55
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$\begingroup$ It's confusing that the potential would be different for each electron depending on where the other one is. The potential just depends inversely on the distance between them. $\endgroup$– G. SmithCommented Jul 9, 2020 at 17:35
2 Answers
Let's have 2 electrons and nothing else. Then the Schrödinger wave function $\Psi$ depends on the positions $\vec{r}_1$ and $\vec{r}_2$ of the two electrons (i.e. on 6 coordinates) and on time $t$: $$\Psi(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2,t)$$
The potential energy is just the Coulomb repulsion energy between the 2 electrons. It depends on the distance $|\vec{r}_1-\vec{r}_2|$: $$V(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2)=\frac{e^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0|\vec{r}_1-\vec{r}_2|}$$
So you get the time-dependent Schrödinger equation in a straight-forward way: $$ -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Delta_1\Psi(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2,t) -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Delta_2\Psi(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2,t) +\frac{e^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0|\vec{r}_1-\vec{r}_2|}\Psi(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2,t) =i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi(\vec{r}_1,\vec{r}_2,t)}{\partial t} $$ where $\Delta_1$ and $\Delta_2$ are the Laplace operators with respect to $\vec{r}_1$ and $\vec{r}_2$.
The six coordinates can be combined into 3 $\vec R_{CM}$, the center of mass position, and 3 $\vec r$ using the usual reduced mass:
$$ \frac 1 m = \frac 1 {m_1} + \frac 1 {m_2} = \frac 1 {m_e} + \frac 1 {m_e} = \frac 2 {m_e} $$
Then:
$$ [\frac{\hat p^2}{2m} + V(\vec r)]\psi(\vec r) = 0 $$
The potential is just the Coulomb potential:
$$ V(\vec r) = V(r) = +\frac 1 {4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{e^2} r$$
where I explicitly included the $+$ sign to indicated that it is repulsive.
Putting the for of the momentum operator in position space:
$$ [\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2 + \frac 1 {4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{e^2} r]\psi(\vec r) = 0 $$
At this point you can factor out the angular dependence so that:
$$\psi(\vec r) = R(r)Y^,_l(\theta, \phi) $$
and rewrite the different equation only in terms of $r$.
A full treatment would require a magnetic dipole-dipole term:
$$ H_m(\vec r) = -\frac{\mu_0\gamma^2\hbar^2}{4\pi r^3}[3(\vec S_1\cdot\hat r)(\vec S_2 \cdot \hat r)-\vec S_1 \cdot \vec S_2] $$
where
$$\gamma = \frac e {2m_e}(2 + \frac{\alpha}{2\pi} + \cdots) = 1.76085963023\times 10^{-11}\,{\mathrm s^{-1}T^{-1}} $$
is the electron gyromagnetic ratio and $\vec S_i$ are their spin operators.