The Diamond Lattice (e.g. here) is an fcc-lattice. For an fcc-lattice, one set of primitive translation vectors could be
$\left\{ \frac{a}{2}\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}, \frac{a}{2}\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}, \frac{a}{2}\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \right\}. $
However, this set of vectors must be slightly modified for the Diamond Lattice, and I'm not quite sure how. Any hints would be appreciated!
One question I am asking myself is: If I translated the crystal by the vector $$\frac{a}{4}\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix},$$ would it be invariant under this translation (I cannot imagine it right now)?