# Skin effect and currents

Here in this picture

you can see $$I_W$$ which is induced by H. But why $$I_W$$ is not vice versa? Because of $$rot \, \vec B = \mu_0 \, \left( \varepsilon_0 \frac{\partial \vec{E}}{\partial t} + \vec j \right)$$ ? Maybe I have to use $$\oint \vec{E}\cdot \, d\vec{r} = - \int \frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}\cdot \, d\vec{A} = U_{induced}$$

• I'm a little unclear what you are asking. Do you want to know why the current is induced by the H field, rather than the H field being induced by the current Iw ? Feb 21 '11 at 20:20
• @Colin K Hi! I want to know where Iw comes from?
– kame
Feb 21 '11 at 20:32
• The eddy currents are determined by the second equation you listed. Feb 22 '11 at 2:05
• Okay I understand now. Because dB/dt in the Iw-Area will increase, there must be a E-field which goes anti-clockwise. (How can I mark the solution?)
– kame
Feb 24 '11 at 16:14
• @kame: Write your solution as an answer and then mark it as the accepted solution. You can answer your own questions. Dec 5 '11 at 3:04