[Ref. Core Principles of Special and General Relativity by Luscombe, page 246]
Let's say we have any two covariant derivative operators $\nabla$ and $\nabla'$. Then there exists a tensor $C^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}$ such that for all covariant vectors $\omega_{\nu}$, $$\nabla_{\mu}\omega_{\nu}=\nabla'_{\mu}\omega_{\nu}-C^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}\omega_{\alpha}$$
Now I'm quoting the relevant section on torsion tensor definition:
What if the no-torsion requirement is dropped? Set $\omega_{\nu}=\nabla_{\nu}\phi=\nabla'_{\nu}\phi$: (which gives) $\nabla_{\mu}\nabla_{\nu}\phi=\nabla'_{\mu}\nabla'_{\nu}\phi-C^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}\nabla_{\alpha}\phi$. Antisymmetrize over $\mu$ and $\nu$, and assume $\nabla'$ is torsion free, but $\nabla$ is not. In that case $\nabla_{[\mu}\nabla_{\nu]}\phi=-C^{\alpha}_{[\mu\nu]}\nabla_{\alpha}\phi$. The torsion tensor is defined as $T^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}\equiv 2C^{\alpha}_{[\mu\nu]}$, implying that $$(\nabla_{\mu}\nabla_{\nu}-\nabla_{\nu}\nabla_{\mu})\phi=-T^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}\nabla_{\alpha}\phi$$
I don't understand why this is so. I mean the LHS is can also be notationally represented as $\nabla_{[\mu}\nabla_{\nu]}\phi$, so either there should be a factor of $1/2$ on the RHS, or the torsion tensor should be defined as $T^{\alpha}_{\mu\nu}\equiv C^{\alpha}_{[\mu\nu]}$, or am I missing something?