I recently read a paper where it says "if space is universally Euclidean, then time is universal" and I don't understand some key points about the implication.
To put in context, the author argues, based on historical sources, that the name of Galilean transformations is misleading and it would be more appropriate to call them as Euclidean space-time transformations. Since in classical mechanics time is not a transformable quantity (like coordinates and velocities), an Euclidean space transformation for an event at points $(x,y,z)$ in the inertial frame $\mathcal{S}$ and measured in $(x',y',z')$ in $\mathcal{S}'$, where $\mathcal{S}'$ is another inertial frame that moves in the $+x$ direction at constant $v$ relative to $\mathcal{S}$, is given by $$x'=x-vt;\quad y'=y;\quad z'=z \tag{1}$$ Then, as a mathematical consequence time is absolute. The "proof" started as:
A general time transformation equation is now added to Eq. (1). Then, without any assumption about the time transformation except linearity, the space-time transformation of an event measured as $x,y,z,t$ in $\mathcal{S}$, and $x',y',z',t'$ in $\mathcal{S}'$, can be written as $$x'=x-vt;\quad y'=y;\quad z'=z;\quad t'=\alpha t-\beta x$$ where $\alpha$ and $\beta$ allow $t'$ to be a linear function of $t$ and $x$. Linearity of the transformation equations is necessary in order to guarantee any particular event in one frame appears as a single event, without echoes, in the other frame of reference.
After some steps, the author obtains that $t'=t$, as expected. What I don't understand is why we have to assume linearity. I don't see how this property guarantee that there are no "echoes" from a single event. In general, if I write time in $\mathcal{S}'$ as $t'=\alpha t^n+\beta x^m$, how can I know that $n=m=1$?