I ran across this problem on an exam a couple days ago:
Consider the transformation to the new coordinates $(r,u,z,\bar{z})$ $$r=\sqrt{(x^1)^2+(x^2)^2+(x^3)^2} \qquad u = x^0-r \qquad z=\frac{x^1+ix^2}{x^3+r} \qquad \bar{z}=\frac{x^1-ix^2}{x^3+r}$$ Find the metric tensor $g_{\mu \nu}$
At first glance, it seamed easier to just solve for the contravariant metric and invert it later $$g^{\mu\nu} = \epsilon^{\nu} \epsilon^\mu = \frac{\partial q^\nu}{\partial x^j} \hat{e}^j \frac{\partial q^\mu}{\partial x^i} \hat{e}^i = \frac{\partial q^\nu}{\partial x^j} \frac{\partial q^\mu}{\partial x^i} \eta^{ij} $$
However, when I computed the elements, I found it to be singular, with only three entries non-zero.
When I tried the other way around and computed $x^i = f(q^j)$ to get the covariant metric directly $$g_{\mu\nu} = \epsilon_{\nu} \epsilon_\mu = \frac{\partial x^i}{\partial q^\nu} \hat{e}_i \frac{\partial x^j}{\partial q^\mu} \hat{e}_j = \frac{\partial x^i}{\partial q^\nu} \frac{\partial x^j}{\partial q^\mu} \eta_{ij} $$
I got a non-singular metric with clearly non-zero elements.
I've read a few posts to understand the significance of a singular metric tensor ($det(g)=0$), but I'm yet unclear as to why one representation (covariant) of the metric was non-singular, while the other (contra) was singular when they should be describing the same thing.
Aren't they related by $G_{co}= \frac{1}{G_{contra}}$?
How is this possible if only one of them is singular?
One last note: this paper(On Degenerate Metrics and Electromagnetism, T.P Searight) seemed to acknowledge this problem, but I got lost in the heavy algebra because I didn't take a GR class yet