My derivation is as follows.
The total KE, $T_r$ for a rigid object purely rotating about an axis with angular velocity $\bf{ω}$ and with the $i$th particle rotating with velocity $ \textbf{v}_{(rot)i} = \textbf{r}_i \times \textbf{ω}$, (summing over the i'th particle) is $T_r = \frac{1}{2}m_i|\textbf{r}_i \times \textbf{ω}|^2$, as long as the origin passes through the axis of rotation.
Let's decompose these using a coordinate system with 3 arbitrary orthogonal unit vectors, whose directions have subscript (1,2,3), and expand the brackets. The result can be shown to be $T_r = \frac{1}{2}I_{ij}ω_iω_j$ summing from $i,j = 1$ to $3$, and where $I_{ij}$ are elements of the moment/product of inertia tensor in the given coordinate system.
This seems like the standard expression for rotational kinetic energy. The only assumption was that the object has a constant rotation and that our chosen origin lies on the axis of rotation.
- Now let's boost the object with a velocity $\textbf{v}_o$. The total velocity is now $\textbf{v}_o + \textbf{v}_{(rot)i}$ so the total KE is $\frac{1}{2}Mv_o^2 + T_r + m_i \textbf{v}_o \cdot({\textbf{r}_i \times\textbf{ω})}$
It seems to me that the third term is not trivially zero. If it is, can anyone show this? If not, then why do we simply add rotation and translation energies in mechanics?