Say I measure a quantum particle at some place, and then I find it at another place. According to my understanding of wavefunctions the particle can get from one place to another without traversing the space in between Is this phenomena a consequence of Quantum Mechanics or have i got it wrong?

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    $\begingroup$ The duplicate question isn't exactly the same '(you're not asking about orbitals), but that doesn't change anything fundamental and e.g. this answer discusses exactly what you're asking about. $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Jun 11 '20 at 12:34
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you but direct answers to this question would have been more informative. $\endgroup$ – Kashmiri Jun 11 '20 at 13:03
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    $\begingroup$ If you have something that's not answered by the linked duplicate, please edit your question to point out what specifically you want to know that's not covered there. $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Jun 11 '20 at 13:07
  • $\begingroup$ Also see physics.stackexchange.com/a/488540/123208 $\endgroup$ – PM 2Ring Jun 11 '20 at 14:43