I believe the answer to this is quite simple, perhaps so simple that I cannot find it in any book.
Usually, if there is a gauge symmetry in the theory, we add an interaction term in the covariant derivative, like: \begin{equation}D_\mu = \partial_\mu +i \frac{g}{2} V^i _\mu t_i\end{equation} where, in this general case, the t's are the generators of the group corresponding to the symmetry, the V's are the bosons corresponding to each generators, the g is the coupling of the force that corresponds to the symmetry and the '2' is a "convenient normalization factor".
What happens next is to write the Lagrangian term which is usually: \begin{equation} \bar \Psi \gamma^\mu D_\mu \Psi\end{equation}
I understand that the fermion current $\bar \Psi \gamma^\mu \Psi $ comes from the dirac equation (I think? ).
My problem is that sometimes, usually when discussing BSM theories, 'they' start writing $\Psi^T$ instead of the $\bar \Psi$. For instance, Eq.(3.34), p.31 in this thesis.
I really don't understand when we should choose to write $ \Psi ^T \gamma^\mu \Psi $ over $\bar \Psi \gamma^\mu \Psi $.