Just wanted to provide a geometrical interpretation of what's going on here, perhaps without resorting to an exact form of a Lorentz transformation! In special relativity, we are ultimately analysing the geometry of $\mathbb{R}^{1, 3}$ under the Minkowski metric. That is to say, we are looking at time dimension and space dimensions and putting them on the same footing as each other but with a measure of distance defined as
$$ ds^ 2 = - d t ^ 2 + d x ^ 2 + d y ^ 2 + d z ^ 2 $$
This means that given two 4-vectors in this space, say $ x ^ \mu $ and $ y ^ \mu $, we treat their contraction much like an inner product in Euclidean space, but instead we are computing $ x \cdot y = \eta _{\mu \nu } x ^ \mu y ^ \nu $ where
$$ \eta_{\mu \nu } = diag(- 1 , 1 , 1, 1 ) $$
So, we have a meaningful notion of the norm of $ x $, where
$$ x \cdot x = x ^ \mu x ^\nu \eta_{\mu \nu } $$
Now to answer the question. A Lorentz transform is defined as a transformation which preserves the norm of any four vector. So, if we do the Lorentz transform $ x ^\mu \to \Lambda ^ \mu _{ \ \ \nu} x ^ \nu$,
where $\Lambda $ is some matrix, it must preserve our norm for arbitrary $ x ^ \mu $, so
$$ \Lambda ^ \mu _{ \, \, \rho } \eta ^{ \rho \sigma } \Lambda^ \nu _{\, \, \sigma } = \eta ^{\mu \nu}. $$ In other words, it's any member of the group $ O(3, 1 ) $, which is the space of transforms which preserve norms under the Minkowski metric.