An infinite cylinder of radius R has a uniforme current distribution through its surface $\vec \kappa (t)=\kappa(t)\vec \phi$. Find a) the magnetic field generated by the distribuition, b) the induced electric field, and c) the Poyinting vector for this configuration.
So far, I have used Ampere's Law to determine the magnetic field, which for $r \le R$ (and ignoring Maxwell's correction) is: $$ \vec B=\mu_0 \kappa(t) \hat z$$ and nule for the remaining space. Faraday's Law in integral form: ${\displaystyle \oint _{\partial \Sigma }\mathbf {E} \cdot \mathrm {d} \mathbf {l} =-{\int _\Sigma }\mathbf {\frac {\mathrm {d} {B} }{\mathrm {d} t}} \cdot \mathrm {d} \mathbf {A} }$ leads to (for $r\le R$): $$\vec E(t)=-\frac{\mu_0}{2} \frac{d \kappa(t)}{d \kappa}r \hat\phi$$
So the Poynting vector $\vec S =\frac{\vec E \times \vec B}{\mu_0}$ is nule for $R \le r$ and, for $r \le R$: $$\vec S=-\frac{\mu_0}{2}\kappa(t)\frac{d \kappa(t)}{d \kappa}r \hat r$$
I understand all the steps of the problem, but what I can't understand is why the vector $\vec S$ is discountinuous on the surface of the cylinder.
Comparing it to the case of a solenoid connected to a tension source, it makes some sense that the Poynting vector, which represents a flux of energy transported by the EM field per unit of time, is pointing (pun unintended) in the direction that energy is being "given" to the system, but I'm not sure if that's the case. Plus, eventhough there isn't a magnetic field outside the cylinder, there's still an electric field, which (at least, in my head) should still contribute to the energy flow.
Can anyone help make sense of this? What am I missing here?