I am familiar with Pseudo forces and how we use them in accelerating reference frames. My question is a bit specific. Let’s say I am accelerating at $a\frac{m}{s^2}$ and holding a tennis ball of mass $m$. I understand it is the push force provided by my hand that is accelerating the ball with me. When I observe the ball in my own (accelerating) frame, I would say that it is at rest relative to me. I am asked to write its force equations, and I come up with this,
$F_{push}$ - $ma$ = $m$$a_{ball}$, where ‘$ma$‘ is a pseudo force acting on the ball.
Since $a_{ball}$ = $0$ (relative to my frame), I’d say, $F_{push}$ = $ma$, and that’s why the ball is at rest relative to me.
My question is, can I use a pseudo force for myself? Because I am at rest relative to my own non-inertial frame, but I am accelerating relative to an inertial frame. Now since I am accelerating relative to an inertial frame, there must be a force (say, $F_{applied}$) acting on me that is accelerating me. I can see (or feel) that force in my own (non-inertial frame) because individual forces are frame-independent.
Let’s say my mass is $M$. I am at rest relative to my frame, so if I write the force equation for myself, can I say, $F_{applied}$ - $Ma$ = $M$$a_M$, where $a_M$ is my acceleration relative to my own frame.
Since $a_M$ = $0$ $\Rightarrow$ $F_{applied} = $M$a_M$
Is it correct? My question is, can I use the pseudo force for myself in my own accelerating frame? I understand I can use it for the ball I am holding, or any other body that I am observing. Can I use it for myself if I want to explain my state of rest relative to my own frame?