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Consider the translation in space operator in $1D$: $$D(a)=e^{-ia\hat{p}/\hbar}$$ It is unitary - $D(-a)=D^{\dagger}(a)=D^{-1}(a)$ - which implies that $D(a)$ has eigenvalues on the unit circle like all unitaries do.

$D(a)$ acts on a function $f(x)$ by translating it - $$D(a)f(x)=f(x-a)$$

Now consider the case of $f(x)=e^{\lambda x}$:

$$D(a)f(x)=e^{\lambda(x-a)}=e^{-\lambda a}e^{\lambda x}=e^{-\lambda a}f(x)$$

So $f$ is an eigenfunction of the translation operator with eigenvalue $e^{-\lambda a}$ which may be arbitrary large or small for sufficient $\lambda$.

It appears we arrived at a contradiction. How is it solved? Is it enough to consider only eigenfunctions that are normalized wavefunctions? Is it possible that $D(a)$ has eigenstates that are not orthogonal to each other?

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Are you working on the whole real line? If so, then $e^{\lambda x}$ is not normalizable even in the rigged Hilbert space (i.e. delta function normalizations) sense, so $e^{\lambda x}$ is not in the domain of the translation operator. If you are working with periodic boundary condition $\psi(x)=\psi(x+L)$ then $e^{\lambda x}$ is not in the Hilbert space unless $\lambda= 2\pi i n/L$ for integer $n$. If you are working on a finite interval with boundary consitions such as $\psi(0)=\psi(L)=0$, then $\hat p$ has no eigenvalues because it not self-adjoint and $e^{i\hat p a}$ is not unitary.

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  • $\begingroup$ I had the real line in mind but your answer is good. On the real line, it is it correct that free particle states $\psi(x)=e^{ikx}$ are the only eigenfunctions, so $e^{ika}$ (the entire unit circle) are the only eigenvalues? $\endgroup$
    – proton
    Commented May 12, 2020 at 16:45
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. Normalized so that $\langle p|p'\rangle = 2\pi \delta(p-p')$. $\endgroup$
    – mike stone
    Commented May 12, 2020 at 17:08
  • $\begingroup$ Is it a mathematical issue or a physical one? Doesn't $e^{\lambda x}$ live in some function space where the translation operator is not unitary? $\endgroup$
    – proton
    Commented May 12, 2020 at 17:13
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    $\begingroup$ You can define translation in $C^{\infty}[{\mathbb R}]$ (smooth functions) for example, and then your exponential function is certainly an eigenfunction. But there is no inner product, and no physical applications that I can think of. $\endgroup$
    – mike stone
    Commented May 12, 2020 at 17:53

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