(I am just beginning to understand this material, so the question may seem stupid). The equation for Lorentz Force: $\mathbf F=q(\mathbf E + \mathbf v \times \mathbf B)$ describes the force that acts on an electric charge $q$. Both the electric field and the magnetic field act on the charge (if it is moving with respect to the magnetic field). But is it to be understood that the electric field $\mathbf E$ that appears in the above equation is not the one that may be the result of electromagnetic induction?
I am asking this because I guess that the way a magnetic field affects a charged particle is totally captured by the second addendum in the definition of the Lorentz force i.e. $(\mathbf v \times \mathbf B)$, while the electric field $\mathbf E$ in the equation makes reference only to electric field due to the distribution of charges. I am correct or I am missing something? And if so, can we say that the total force that acts on a charged particle is simply $q\mathbf E$ if we define E by taking into account also the electric field generated by (or the way the electric field is affected by) a changing magnetic field? And if I am wrong, does this mean that a magnetic field acts in two ways on a charged particle: one: by creating an electric field, and two, in the way described by the Lorentz force? (but this second option seems wrong to me).