When trying to understand the correspondence principle, I found a proof in this section (of this book) about why the quantum Poisson brackets ($\{\,,\,\}_{\text{QM}}$) must be proportional to the commutator ($[\,,\,]_{-}$). But, I'm stuck in the last step:
$$\Big[\hat A_1,\hat B_1\Big]_{-}\Big\{\hat A_2,\hat B_2\Big\}_{\text{QM}}=\Big\{\hat A_1,\hat B_1\Big\}_{\text{QM}}\Big[\hat A_2,\hat B_2\Big]_{-}$$
Since $\hat A_i,\hat B_i$ are almost arbitrary chosen operators, this result suggests that:
$$\Big\{\hat A,\hat B\Big\}_{\text{QM}}=i\alpha\Big[\hat A,\hat B\Big]_{-}$$
My question is, why is that suggestion so straightforward?
I thought it could be obtained by choosing $\hat A_1$ and $\hat B_1$ such that $\dfrac{\{\hat A_1,\hat B_1\}_{\text{QM}}}{[\hat A_1,\hat B_1]_{-}}=i\alpha$, but that is redundant.