It appears that one can derive a wave equation if the gravitational force is considered in its derivation by using $$\frac{\partial p_0}{\partial x} = -\rho_0 g.$$ Here, $\rho_0 = \rho(p_0)$ and $p_0 = p(\rho_0)$ are the density and pressure respectively in the equilibrium state. The wave equation has the following form: $$c^{-2}\frac{\partial \tilde{p}}{\partial t^2} = \nabla^2\tilde{p} + g\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(\frac{\tilde{p}}{c^2(x)}\right),$$ where $$c(x) = \left(\frac{\partial\rho}{\partial p}(p_0(x))\right)^{-1/2}.$$ How come that the gravitational term can be neglected if $\lambda \ll c^2/g$?
I know that $$\tilde{p} = - \rho_0 \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}$$ where $\phi$ is the acoustic velocity potential. So, $$\nabla^2\tilde{p} = -\rho_0\left(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x\partial t} + \frac{\partial\phi}{\partial y\partial t} + \frac{\partial\phi}{\partial z\partial t}\right)$$ and $$g\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(\frac{\tilde{p}}{c^2(x)}\right) = -g\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(\frac{\rho_0}{c^2(x)}\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial t}\right).$$ Now, I have no idea how to show that the gravitational term is indeed negligible if $\lambda \ll c^2/g$. Anyone has an idea?