In physics, exponentials such as $\exp(-r/\xi) $ typically come with a natural length scale $\xi$ while power laws such as $\sim 1/r^n$ don't have a definite length scale (at least not readily identifiable).
At the phase transition point, (i) the correlation functions exhibit power-law behavior, and (ii) fluctuations of all length scales are said to be present.
Question But if power laws do not have a length scale, how are the facts (i) and (ii) be reconciled? Is having no definite length scale in a power-law is the same as having all length scales present?