In page 78 of David Tong's notes on CFT https://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/tong/string/four.pdf, he finds that the propagator for a theory of free massless scalars is
$$\langle X(\sigma)X(\sigma')\rangle=-\frac{\alpha'}{2}\text{log}(\sigma-\sigma')^2$$
Then he goes on saying that in equation (4.22) the OPE of $X(\sigma)X(\sigma')$ is
$$X(\sigma)X(\sigma')=-\frac{\alpha'}{2}\text{log}(\sigma-\sigma')^2 + ... \label{eq}$$
My question is: what are the $...$ in the above equation?
Certainly they are there because he is saying that we could consider the path integral with other isertions away from $\sigma$ and $\sigma'$, but then equation (4.20) would turn to
$$\langle \partial^2 X(\sigma)X(\sigma')...\rangle=-2 \pi \alpha' \langle \delta^2(\sigma,\sigma') ... \rangle$$
Implying that
$$\langle X(\sigma)X(\sigma')...\rangle =-\frac{\alpha'}{2}\langle \text{log}(\sigma-\sigma')^2... \rangle \\ \hspace{2.8cm}=-\frac{\alpha'}{2}\text{log}(\sigma-\sigma')^2\langle ... \rangle$$
Because all insertions are away from $\sigma$ and $\sigma'$.