1
$\begingroup$

For ideal gases, in case of an isochoric process it is pretty straight forward:

$\mathrm dU=Q+W$

$\Rightarrow\mathrm dU=C_V\,\mathrm dT+p\,\mathrm dV$

$\Rightarrow\mathrm dU=C_V\,\mathrm dT$

But in case of an isobaric process,

$\mathrm dU=Q+W$

$\Rightarrow\mathrm dU=C_p\,\mathrm dT-p\,\mathrm dV$

I tried deriving it this way but I'm stuck. How do I get $\mathrm dU=C_V\,\mathrm dT$ for an isobaric process?

And I have no clue how to derive it for an adiabatic process either, so how do you get the expression for $\mathrm dU$ for an adiabatic process?

Edit: I have thought of substituting $pdV = RdT$ then plugging in $R=C_p-C_v%$. But I was hesitant. Is $du=C_vdT$ because $R=C_p-C_v$ or the other way around?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ $c_V$ emerges naturally for an ideal gas just considering the first law and Joule's experiment. Check my post here and GProcks argument below. $\endgroup$
    – 2b-t
    Commented Apr 4, 2020 at 13:17

3 Answers 3

3
$\begingroup$

$U$ is a state function. That means that no matter which path we choose from the point 1 to point 2, we always have the same $\Delta U$ between these two points.

Now in order to prove that

$$\tag{1} \Delta U = n_m C_v \Delta T; \quad \quad n_m \; \text{is the number of moles} $$ all we need to do is find just one process (one path from starting point 1 to finishing point 2) in which (1) holds. That will be enough to prove that (1) always holds.

Now, consider any starting and finishing point (look at the picture) p-V diagram

We can see that that points 1 and 2 (they can be any two points!) can always be connected via 1-A-2, where 1-A is isothermal process whereas A-2 is isochoric process. In process 1-A there is no change in $U$ because in ideal gas $U$ depends only on temperature, so $\Delta U_{1-A} =0$. On the other hand, we can write $\Delta U_{A-2} =n_m C_v \Delta T$ because A-2 is isochoric process.

Thus, we found one path in which (1) holds. So, using the fact that $U$ is a state function we conclude that (1) holds always.

$\endgroup$
0
3
$\begingroup$

$dU=C_vdT$ is a generic statement, for ideal gases. I will try to convince you of this by proving this from first principles. This is standard, see Reif for example.

Since there are 2 free parameters(the third is determined from PV=RT), we choose $U=U(T,v)$(this makes the calculation simpler than the other choices). Then, $$dU=\bigg( \frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT+\bigg(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\bigg)_TdV$$.

Similarly, for $s=S(T,V)$ (the entropy)-$$dS=\bigg( \frac{\partial S}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT+\bigg(\frac{\partial S}{\partial V}\bigg)_TdV$$

Also, $$dS=\frac{1}{T}(dE+PdV)=\frac{1}{T}\bigg(\bigg(\frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT+\bigg(\bigg(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\bigg)_T+\frac{RT}{V}\bigg)dV\bigg)$$

The last two equations allow us to read off $$\frac{\partial S}{\partial V}, \frac{\partial S}{\partial T}$$(I will drop the subscripts subsequently).Using $$\frac{\partial^2S}{\partial V\partial T}=\frac{\partial^2S}{\partial T\partial V}$$, we get $$\bigg(\partial U/\partial V\bigg)_T=0$$,

i.e. for a given $T$, the energy depends only on $T$. Both $V$ and $P$ may change, but as long as you have specified a $T$, the energy doesn't. Thus, we have, IN GENERAL, $$dU=\bigg(\frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT= \bigg(\frac{dQ+pdV}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT=\bigg(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial T}\bigg)_VdT=C_vdT$$

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Your answer is compelling but kinda above my level (I've just completed high school :) ) but I will definitely get back to it later $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 4, 2020 at 16:42
  • $\begingroup$ @ArnabChowdhury that's okay, good luck! If you're interested, this can be proved from even more fundamental principles of statistical mechanics(my answer is a thermodynamics proof). $\endgroup$
    – GRrocks
    Commented Apr 5, 2020 at 8:25
  • $\begingroup$ @GRocks I'd love to learn about that too $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 5, 2020 at 11:00
1
$\begingroup$

For an ideal gas at constant pressure, pdV=RdT. So,$$dU=C_pdT-RdT=(C_p-R)dT=C_vdT$$

$\endgroup$

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.