# Clarification of Ehrenfest theorem

The page on Ehrenfest theorem in Wikipedia(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ehrenfest_theorem) says-

"Although, at first glance, it might appear that the Ehrenfest theorem is saying that the quantum mechanical expectation values obey Newton’s classical equations of motion, this is not actually the case. If the pair $$(\langle x\rangle ,\langle p\rangle )}(\langle x\rangle ,\langle p\rangle )}$$ were to satisfy Newton's second law, the right-hand side of the second equation would have to be

$$-V'\left(\left\langle x\right\rangle \right),}$$ which is typically not the same as $$-\left\langle V'(x)\right\rangle}$$"

I consulted the paper mentioned in the reference,but that explains more of when these two are equal,or cases where equivalence of Ehrenfest theorem and Newton's law fails,and other more sophisticated things.

I understand that those two are not the same,but I think $$-\left\langle V'(x)\right\rangle}$$" gives the value of force and not the other one$$-V'\left(\left\langle x\right\rangle \right),}$$because, we must take the derivative of potential energy and then take the expectation value.Why should taking the expectation of position and then calculating the derivative of potential at that "average" position should give us the value of force but not the other expression($$-\left\langle V'(x)\right\rangle}$$)?