Specifically why do they have $V = \frac{c}{β}$ as stated in this paper written by De Broglie: http://aflb.ensmp.fr/LDB-oeuvres/De_Broglie_Kracklauer.pdf ?

I follow the proof of “phase harmony” between the reference frames, but i’m getting confused between them and i don’t see why $V = \frac{c}{β}$

P.S i know matter waves are kind of an archaic concept, this is purely a historical exercise.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.