I want to figure out the motion of a comet that can somehow pass freely through the sun (mass much, much greater than the comet's so that its movement is negligible) if it starts out stationary relative to the sun. This will be oscillatory motion, so I wish to calculate its period.
First Approach
It can be seen that the period will be $4T$, where T is the time it takes for the comet and the sun to collide. My reasoning for this is that it will start from $R_{max}$ and then reach the sun and then go back out to $R_{max}$ (now on the other side), and it repeats this. Because of the conservation of energy, the time of oscillation is $4T$. It is well known that the time of collision of two mutually-attracting bodies is $T = \frac{\pi R_{max}^\frac{3}{2}}{2\sqrt{2GM}}$, so the period of this motion is $\frac{2\pi R_{max}^\frac{3}{2}}{\sqrt{2GM}}$
Second Approach
This is effectively Kepler's problem with angular momentum $l = 0$.
Because this is a Keplerian problem, the comet will orbit in an ellipse (we are assuming a bounded orbit). If we take the limit of $l$ as it goes to $0$, one finds that $2a = R_{max}$, where a is the semi-major axis of the orbit. Therefore, according to Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion, the period of this orbit (and thus of this motion) is $\tau = \frac{\pi R_{max}^\frac{3}{2}}{\sqrt{2GM}}$.
The two answers I achieved are off by a factor of $2$. Also, the first answer states that the motion is a line of length $2R_{max}$ and the sun is at the center. But this is a Kepler problem, so shouldn't the sun be at the end of the a line with length $R_{max}$, like in the second answer? I am wondering why the second approach is incorrect.
Edit:
I am wondering why the first event is the actual thing that occurs. Why won't the point-mass comet start from $R_{max}$ and then travel to the singularity, stop suddenly (make a "hairpin" turn), then shoot back?