I'm currently studying electric potential, and I'm having trouble with one of the problems on my homework:
A) A point particle with charge $+q$ is on the x-axis at a distance $d$ from the origin, and another point particle with charge $-q$ is on the x-axis at a distance $-d$ from the origin. Assuming the potential is 0 at large distances from these point particles, show that the potential is also 0 everywhere on the $x=0$ plane.
B) If an infinite grounded flat metal plate is on the $x=0$ plane, the negative charge is removed, and the electric potential is 0 in the same cases as in part (A), the potential function $V$ and the electric field $\vec{E}$ for this part is the same as in part (A). Using this result, find $\vec{E}$ at every point in the $x=0$ plane.
For part A, I simply did $V = \frac{kq}{r} + \frac{k(-q)}{r} = 0$, since the distance from the two particles to any point on the $x=0$ plane is the same for both particles.
However, this presents a problem with part B. What I found was $E = \frac{kq}{r^2} + \frac{k(-q)}{r^2} = 0$ using the same logic that I did for part A, which disagrees with the book's answer of $\frac{2kdq}{(d^2+r^2)^{3/2}}$. That looks like the formula for the electrical field of a ring, but I don't see the particular relevance here. What am I doing wrong?