In Page 38 of David Tong's QFT notes and Page 27 (Chapter 2.4 The Klein-Gordon Field in Space-Time under the heading Causality) of Peskin and Schroeder's Introduction to Quantum Field Theory, the propagator $D(x-y)$ is interpreted as
the amplitude for a particle to propagate from $y$ to $x$
and is given by $D(x-y) \ = \ \langle 0 | \phi ( x ) \phi ( y ) | 0 \rangle $, where $\phi (x)$ is the real Klein Gordon field in the Heisenberg Picture.
This interpretation of the propagator seems to imply that $\phi ( y ) | 0 \rangle$ is a particle that has been prepared at spacetime coordinate $y$ while $\phi ( x ) | 0 \rangle$ is a particle at spacetime coordinate $x$. However, we also know that the mode expansion for $\phi(x)$ is given by the following combination of creation and annihilation operators:
$$ \phi(x) = \phi ( \mathbf { x } , t ) = \int \frac { d ^ { 3 } p } { ( 2 \pi ) ^ { 3 } } \frac { 1 } { \sqrt { 2 E _ { \mathbf { p } } } } \left( a _ { \mathbf { p } } e ^ { - i p \cdot x } + a _ { \mathbf { p } } ^ { \dagger } e ^ { + i p \cdot x } \right) $$
which seems nothing like a simple particle at spacetime coordinate $x$.
It would be a nice interpretation if $\phi ( x ) | 0 \rangle$ is indeed a particle at spacetime coordinate $x$ but this interpretation makes no sense given the mode expansion for $\phi(x)$.
Hence, is there a self-consistent way to interpret the quantum field given the common interpretation and the form of the propagator?