I was going through the derivation for the equation electromagnetic waves and got these equations $$\mu\epsilon \frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2} = \mathbf{\nabla}\times\left(\frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}\right) = - \mathbf{\nabla}\times(\mathbf{\nabla}\times\mathbf{E}) = \mathbf{\nabla}^2\mathbf{E}$$
Then, I tried to physically visualize this by imagining this situation. For $\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2}$ to exist, there needs to be an acceleration of a charge. Once the charge accelerates, there is a change in the magnetic field $\mathbf{\nabla}\times\left(\frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}\right)$ (if the charge were not accelerating, there would just be a constant magnetic field). Since the magnetic field changes, it produces an electric field in the opposite direction (To oppose the change in the flux of the magnetic field). This again causes a change in the magnetic field and the electric field is again increases along the opposite direction.
Is it right to think of it that way, to get an electromangetic wave?