I was watching a video lecture on Lorentz Transformation where the lecturer was solving a problem. The statement of the problem was:
Suppose we have two inertial frames- stationary one $S$ and another one $S'$ which is moving at $0.6c$ where $c$ is the speed of light. At $t=0$, origins of both the frames coincide. Let a light pulse be emitted from the origin at $t=0$ making an angle $\arctan(3/4)$ with positive $x$ axis.
The lecturer was trying to show that the speed of light is measured same in both reference frame by measuring position of light pulse in both frames after $2 \times 10^{-6}\,\mathrm{s}$.
Now, he first calculated $\gamma$ using $$\gamma = \frac {1}{\sqrt{1-\frac {v^2}{c^2}}} $$ and got $\gamma = 1.25$. Also he got the coordinates in $S $ refrence frame as $(480\,\mathrm{m}, 360\,\mathrm{m}, 0\,\mathrm{m}, 2 \times 10^{-6}\,\mathrm{s})$
Using Lorentz transformations he calculated for $$x' = \gamma \left (x - vt \right) \tag {1}$$ and got $x' = 150\,\mathrm{m}$. Now, I noticed that he used $t= 2\,\mu\mathrm{s}$ here
Then, then he calculated $$t' = \gamma \left ( t - \frac {vx}{c^2} \right)$$ to get $t' = 1.3\,\mu\mathrm{s}$
Now my question is: If all primed quantities are those measured by observer in $S'$ reference frame, why did he use $t= 2\,\mu\mathrm{s}$ for $(1)$? Shouldn't he have calculated $t'$ first and then substituted $t'= 1.3\,\mu\mathrm{s}$ in $(1) $?