How magnetic monopole modifies faraday's law

I have encountered a statement that upon existence of magnetic monopoles, the equation $$\nabla \times \textbf{E} = -\partial_t \textbf{B}$$ must be modified.

I only see that the last equation $$\nabla \cdot \textbf{B} =0$$ should be modified, but not the first equation. Can someone shed some light on it?

• Hint: The magnetic charges must satisfy a continuity equation. – Qmechanic Oct 19 at 20:20