If a time varying magnetic field can give value to the curl of an electric field, why not the other way round? That is, why can't an enclosed loop with some emf produced (basically a current carrying loop) produce a changing magnetic field?
It does produce a constant magnetic field, yes. But according to Faraday's law, curl E=-dB/dt if the curl of the electric field has a value, shouldn't the time derivative also have a value? Meaning: a changing magnetic field should be produced.