Does Time dilation effect correspond to a property of the world that is suited to the term's "modulated force" or "force dilation"?

It seems a simple truth. A modulation in the rate of force-driven systems, represents a modulated value of that system's internal forces. If you take two identical force-driven systems, but one is cycling at a faster rate than the other, then you will define divergent values of force.

Being true, an implication for Relativity theory is that time dilation effect is defined by modulated rates of force driven-systems. Therefore it follows that time dilation effect corresponds empirically to a phenomenon of force dilation.

It is universally true that all forms of timekeeping, are performed in association with force operated systems. This is true whether we refer to mechanical windup clocks, electric clocks, atomic clocks, and including the motions of cosmological bodies.

An ideal and simplest of clocks might be a rotating inertial disk, free of all other effects. The sole property associated with its system being inertial mass, inertial force. A changing rate of such a system is associated as acceleration, and acceleration is associated as force. Whether you consider time dilation to be the cause of this acceleration or not doesnt matter, What matters is that all circumstances of accelerated systems define the same way, as modulated value of force. Empirically so

Acceleration due to time dilation and acceleration due to forces are indistinguishable from one another. If you assess a system you know to have been accelerated, it is impossible to determine whether it was caused by time dilation or caused by an applied force.

The effect of time dilation defines empirically as force dilation. Could Einstein have missed this connection and deeper associated truth of the worlds mode of operation?

  • $\begingroup$ Hi Steve,Your question is a little two ambiguous for me to understand, perhaps because I am unfamiliar with your terminology. When you say a 'force associated system' what do you mean? $\endgroup$ – Marco Ocram Oct 8 '19 at 10:10
  • $\begingroup$ Einstein was looking for the simplest mathematical model. Force is a derived vector given by dp/dt. The space time fourvector representation works beautifully. One can always make very complicated expressions out of the simplest ones, but physics uses OCAM's razor. In any case it is not clear what mathematically would express "force dilation" to even be able to check if it can be derived from the special relativity expressions, (which up to now is continuously validated). $\endgroup$ – anna v Oct 8 '19 at 10:22
  • $\begingroup$ "force associated system" All measurable activity in this universe and its systems, are associated with active forces. It is a universal theme that forces drive all universal activity. We utilize the same activity to define times measure. So activity associated with active forces, and our method of deriving time has the same origin. It is insightful to keep that in mind. This opens a very broad subject $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 9 '19 at 3:29
  • $\begingroup$ anna v, absolutely. This post is more modest than an attempt to reformulate Relativity. What I'm pointing out doesn't speak against the validity of Relativity. Rather, it need only define an empirical observation, and not even having ventured theory. Although, all useful physics leads to theoretical prospecting. Defining mathematical force dilation is simple. Let us imagine we have two identical and synchronized clocks. If the two clocks diverge from one another due to Relativity's effects, that divergence defined by Hooke's law empirically demonstrates force dilation. $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 9 '19 at 9:25
  • $\begingroup$ Force dilation is interesting for those in search of new perspectives. Leave no stone unturned in pursuit of original insight. It might not be immediately obvious, In fact I'm sure it's not. But this avenue is well worth the tread. And so far as I can determine, nobody else has ventured down this path of inquiry. Essentially all we're doing here is describing the way the world operates, and in simple terms. but it has the most curious effect of flipping some commonly held notions upon their head $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 9 '19 at 9:42

All of the effects of Special Relativity (SR) that apply to time and distance carry over to other quantities that are expressed in terms of time and distance. For example, velocity, acceleration, force, and so on, all need to be transformed when moving from one reference frame to another in an appropriate way that reflects the transformation of time and distance. Einstein did not overlook this- you might like to look at his original paper in which his ideas about SR were first published- it is freely available on the Internet.

  • $\begingroup$ You are absolutely right. "All of the effects of Relativity that apply to time and distance carry over to other quantities. For example, force, and so on." That is very nicely summarized. On this basis, what are the carryover effects from time dilation and length contraction to aspect of force? It defines as modulated force, or force dilation. This property has bearly been assessed, if at all. Understandably you question the significance. I know, because I started from a common perspective. But there's far more here than you imagine, and I can explain within this character limit $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 9 '19 at 3:10
  • $\begingroup$ Modulation in cyclic rates of universal systems, evidences Einsteins Relativity. The operation of these universal systems is themed upon forces, and without exception. By extension, modulated rates of force-driven systems define as modulated values of force. Science has been intently focused upon the clock dial "measure of time", but the back end of the clock "its force driven mechanisms" convey information about force, that are sync with measures of time. It empirically demonstrates a relationship that nobody is thinking about.. The question, what can this tell us about the worlds operation? $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 9 '19 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ As Ocram said, I don't think one can experimentally establish a causal relationship between time dilation and change in force due to different reference frames as more fundamental. You can write time dilation in terms of changes in forces in different reference frames, or vice versa, there is nothing really new introduced here $\endgroup$ – Secret Oct 10 '19 at 10:46
  • $\begingroup$ Secret, I didnt mention causal relationship, but rather I only detailed a correlation that exists between time and force. $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 10 '19 at 11:44
  • $\begingroup$ If you were going to attempt to establish a causal relationship within terms of experimental, then I suggest natural systems might guide the interpretation. What is natures method of operation within terms of time and forces? Let us use a clock to represent a world system. Secret, Forces drive clock's, and clocks measure time. Forces generate system activity, and that activity is used to define times measure. Forces generate change, and time a measure of change? Reasonable? $\endgroup$ – Steve Oct 10 '19 at 12:10

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