Does Time dilation effect correspond to a property of the world that is suited to the term's "modulated force" or "force dilation"?
It seems a simple truth. A modulation in the rate of force-driven systems, represents a modulated value of that system's internal forces. If you take two identical force-driven systems, but one is cycling at a faster rate than the other, then you will define divergent values of force.
Being true, an implication for Relativity theory is that time dilation effect is defined by modulated rates of force driven-systems. Therefore it follows that time dilation effect corresponds empirically to a phenomenon of force dilation.
It is universally true that all forms of timekeeping, are performed in association with force operated systems. This is true whether we refer to mechanical windup clocks, electric clocks, atomic clocks, and including the motions of cosmological bodies.
An ideal and simplest of clocks might be a rotating inertial disk, free of all other effects. The sole property associated with its system being inertial mass, inertial force. A changing rate of such a system is associated as acceleration, and acceleration is associated as force. Whether you consider time dilation to be the cause of this acceleration or not doesnt matter, What matters is that all circumstances of accelerated systems define the same way, as modulated value of force. Empirically so
Acceleration due to time dilation and acceleration due to forces are indistinguishable from one another. If you assess a system you know to have been accelerated, it is impossible to determine whether it was caused by time dilation or caused by an applied force.
The effect of time dilation defines empirically as force dilation. Could Einstein have missed this connection and deeper associated truth of the worlds mode of operation?