So I am reading the following here (Blog: Not Even Wrong, Blog post: Not So Spooky Action at a Distance, Commenter: vmarko)
"The collapse postulate is also present in QFT, only hidden inside the LSZ formula. But if you are against using the collapse postulate to describe measurements, then your main problem is neither non-locality nor Bell’s theorem, but rather the measurement problem of QM."
I'm still confused how: "The collapse postulate is also present in QFT, only hidden inside the LSZ formula"? Infact, I wasn't even aware the LSZ has anything to do with the measurement.