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Questions on uniform conducting loop in time varying magnetic field

Well I would like to start with asking few questions for you to provide a detailed solution and whose details has been clearly mentioned in the above image. It would be helpful if you could clearly state the step by step solution to the problem. I could find the flux change in the loop and the emf induced in the entire loop, but will it be symmetrically distributed along each side? Also my notion is since the induced current will flow from P to Q, so P should be at a higher potential. But the answer was given the opposite, am I wrong in here?

Talking about the induced electric field due to time varying magnetic field. I understand that in other modes of inducing emf (changing flux by changing area or the angle between magnetic field and area vector) there is an associated Lorentz force that can be accounted for the induction of emf. But I feel if there's an emf there must be an associated electric field as well and hence I want to know that why don't people talk about induced electric fields in motional emf? Also what's the basis for the existence non conservative electric field? I mean we have been always dealing with conservative electrostatic fields but then how can the opposite exist?

And lastly it would be very helpful if someone could provide an in depth understanding about this topic(through a link to a legitimate and easy to grasp article, maybe) keeping in mind that I am currently a high school student.

Thank you.

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  • $\begingroup$ This seems to broad. Perhaps you'd be better served by a good textbook on electromagnetism. $\endgroup$ – Ján Lalinský Sep 11 at 20:53
  • $\begingroup$ Yes you are right it seems, I am a new member, so I was not well aware of this facts. Well, just the answers to the first and last question will do it for me. That perhaps is not that broad? $\endgroup$ – Sir Arthur7 Sep 12 at 10:12
  • $\begingroup$ Induced current will be from p to q if inward Flux is increasing with time, $\endgroup$ – yuvraj singh Sep 17 at 3:53
  • $\begingroup$ Yes I had figured that out the first time, what I am asking is whether it necessarily means that P is at a higher potential than Q. Also I am unsure whether the induced emf will be symmetrically distributed, and how we can find the terminal voltage across any 2 points(A and B) in the uniform loop. $\endgroup$ – Sir Arthur7 Sep 17 at 4:33

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