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Sorry in advance if this question doesn't make sense.

Anyway, I am reading a paper about quantum field theory and the Whitman Axioms (http://users.ox.ac.uk/~mert2060/GeomQuant/Wightman-Axioms.pdf), and it describes a field ($Ψ$) as

$$Ψ:M\rightarrow V\otimes\text{End}(D)$$

where $M$ is a spacetime manifold, $V$ is a vector space, and $D$ is a dense subspace of a Hilbert space. My question is what $V\otimes\text{End}(D)$ physically represents?

Once again thanks for any help.

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    $\begingroup$ As written, the question is unanswerable. What it "represents" depends on what exactly $D$ and $V$ are and what theory exactly you are talking about (i.e. what Lagrangian). The meaning is very different if it is a gauge field vs. a spinor field vs. a Goldstone boson vs. ... $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Sep 6 '19 at 22:00
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    $\begingroup$ The Hilbert space? $\endgroup$ – G. Smith Sep 6 '19 at 22:18
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    $\begingroup$ Perhaps you could cite the relevant paper for context. $\endgroup$ – J. Murray Sep 6 '19 at 22:53
  • $\begingroup$ The paper is about the Whitman Axioms: users.ox.ac.uk/~mert2060/GeomQuant/Wightman-Axioms.pdf $\endgroup$ – Bobjoesmith Sep 8 '19 at 23:54
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Hi I just wanted to say I got an answer that cleared up my confusion here:

physics forum

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    $\begingroup$ Please do not post links without at least a basic summary of what they contain and how that content answers the question, since link-only answers become useless if the link rots away. Link-only answers are not considered answers here and will be deleted. $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Sep 13 '19 at 16:34

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