For a $U(1)$-gauge theory, we can fix $A_0 = 0$ by choosing a temporal gauge. Can we do the same for all of the gauge components of the $SU(2)$ gauge field, i.e., $W^a_0 = 0$ for $a \in \{1,2,3\}$? Does this uniquely determine a gauge?

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The question physics.stackexchange.com/q/33133 isn't a duplicate, but its answers contain the answer to at least the second part of your question, and implicitly to the first part, too. $\endgroup$ – Chiral Anomaly Sep 3 '19 at 13:03

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.