# Does the temporal gauge condition uniquely determine a gauge in case of non-Abelian gauge theory?

For a $$U(1)$$-gauge theory, we can fix $$A_0 = 0$$ by choosing a temporal gauge. Can we do the same for all of the gauge components of the $$SU(2)$$ gauge field, i.e., $$W^a_0 = 0$$ for $$a \in \{1,2,3\}$$? Does this uniquely determine a gauge?

• The question physics.stackexchange.com/q/33133 isn't a duplicate, but its answers contain the answer to at least the second part of your question, and implicitly to the first part, too. – Chiral Anomaly Sep 3 '19 at 13:03