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In "ON THE EINSTEIN-PODOLSKI-ROSEN PARADOX" by Bell(1964), Eq(14) says: $$ \begin{align} P(\vec{a},\vec{b}) &=\int{d\lambda\rho(\lambda)A(\vec{a},\lambda)B(\vec{b},\lambda)}\\ &=-\int{d\lambda\rho(\lambda)A(\vec{a},\lambda)A(\vec{b},\lambda)} \end{align} $$ Why is $ B(\vec{b},\lambda)=-A(\vec{b},\lambda) $ ?

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    $\begingroup$ Try giving more context to the question and explaining your current thoughts on the matter that confuses you, so that people can answer to you accurately $\endgroup$
    – ohneVal
    Commented Aug 27, 2019 at 14:38

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If I remember that part correctly: The assumption is that Alice always measures the opposite spin direction as Bob, whatever the situation might be.

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