I know that when I study the motion of a rigid body from a non-inertial frame, I have to take into account the fictitious forces.

However, it is not straightforward to find the resultant force (and its application point) equivalent to all of the single fictitious forces which are applied to the body's particles.

I know this is possibile for example for the centrifugal force, but only in case of specific body simmetry.

In a general case, I wouldn't know how to easily find out the equivalent sollecitation for ALL fictitious applied to the body's particles (I mean, without performing integrals). Can anybody give me a hint?


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