In discussing geometrical optics, Fermat's principle of least time is often used to solve problems and is generally used as a replacement of laws of reflection and refraction. Fermat's principle is usually presented as an intuitive idea, but I wish to find a way where we can show that is is actually a result of least of reflection and refraction. We have explanation for laws of reflection and refraction and they must be the basic laws, with Fermat's principle being a consequence of it. Do we have any explanation suggesting that Fermat's principle is the direct consequence of laws of reflection and refraction?
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asked Aug 25, 2019 at 10:01
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$\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/2041/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/100317/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/257140/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$– Qmechanic ♦Aug 25, 2019 at 10:15
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$\begingroup$ Sir, how my question is related to the one you mentioned, I wish to find a way to prove Fermat's principle using reflection and refraction. $\endgroup$– Yashkalp SharmaAug 25, 2019 at 10:24
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$\begingroup$ Do you know the optical laws for reflection and refraction? $\endgroup$– Qmechanic ♦Aug 25, 2019 at 10:31
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