1
$\begingroup$

My question is essentially a follow up to this question. It's answer says, the mobile charges in the conductor distribute themselves to make E = 0 inside the conductor. But, I don't understand how a conservative E field (from the charge distribution) cancels out the non conservative E field (from the time varying magnetic field) to produce no net E field in the conductor?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

I don't understand how a conservative E field (from the charge distribution) cancels out the non conservative E field

Conservative field can have lines of force of any shape provided they do not form closed loops. Think of conservative field of electric dipole: its lines of force look like closed loops far from the dipole, but they are not, because they start and end at the charges.

Similar thing is happenning with the conservative field of that half ring conductor; due to induced electric field, electric charges accumulate on extremities of the conductor to form conservative field that cancels the induced field inside the half ring. Of course, the conservative (Coulomb) field can't cancel the induced field both inside and outside the conductor. The cancellation happens only inside the perfect conductor.

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ Even inside the conductor how is the curl free (Coulomb) field cancelling the induced field which has non zero curl? $\endgroup$ – Shashank Aug 18 at 21:27
  • $\begingroup$ Induced field does not have non-zero curl in all cases. In case of solenoid, induced field outside has zero curl, because there is no magnetic field changing there (field is contained inside the solenoid). In other setups where the induced electric field of some source does have non-zero curl in region where the conductor is, the conductor produces its own induced field that in addition to its Coulomb field counteracts the first induced field. $\endgroup$ – Ján Lalinský Aug 19 at 8:15
  • $\begingroup$ Oh! Missed that point! Got it. Thank you! $\endgroup$ – Shashank Aug 19 at 10:49
0
$\begingroup$

First of all , when current is inside the conductor , it is driven by voltage and not by an electric field . When current starts flowing , the coil wants to build a magnetic field . While doing , it creates a back emf which resists the current . Once the magnetic field is created it allows the current to pass normally. The coil just resists the flow of current .

You should study more Faraday's laws.

$\endgroup$
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ I don't get how this answers my question. $\endgroup$ – Shashank Aug 18 at 20:50

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.