I'm studying regularization of divergent integrals in QFT from Here: Roberto Soldati - Field Theory 2. Intermediate Quantum Field Theory (A Next-to-Basic Course for Primary Education)
I think I'm missing the big picture, let me explain.
At page 166 he says
In order to give a precise mathematical meaning to the above listed ill defined integral expressions, we have to introduce from the outset some kind of regularization procedure, the aim of which is to build up absolutely convergent loop integrals.
Bold mine.
Then pages later (from page 178), when he explains dimensional regularization he does it with a paradigmatic example, he considers this integral:
$$ I = \mu^{4 - 2\omega} \int \displaystyle\frac{d^{2\omega} k_E}{(2\pi)^{2\omega}} \big(k_E^2 - \Delta \big)^{-2} $$
We then obtain (page 181 equation 4.23)
$$ I = \frac{1}{16 \pi^2} \bigg( \displaystyle\frac{1}{\epsilon} - {\bf{C}} + ln \displaystyle\frac{4\pi\mu^2}{\Delta} \bigg) + O(\epsilon) \tag{4.23} $$
Where $\epsilon = 2-\omega$.
Now if we want $I$ in 4 dimensions we have to take $\epsilon = 0$ and we see in $(4.23)$ that with this choice $I$ diverges because of the term $\displaystyle\frac{1}{\epsilon}$, therefore we didn't built a convergent integral as stated in the bolded part of the quote above. Then I ask:
What did we achieve with this procedure if when we come back to four dimension we still have a divergent result?
And since I am probably missing the point and the big picture please feel free to explain it to me.