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This question is an exact duplicate of:

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See as per the question, The Inductor pretty much will induce emf due to magnetic field and not due to other coil/current nearby. Thus I used $E= - d(phi(t))/dt$ as the induced emf.

Then using (magnitude of q=CV) I put V=E thus getting q(t)=C . d(phi(t))/dt

Also I took phi(t) = B.A.coswt arbitrarily where at t=0, phi = B.A And so I got the 2nd option. Please help me. Is my solution correct? Also can you help with 4th option? I presume its not related to the question at all?

Edit:- Sorry with my Latex. I dont know how to write it properly.

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marked as duplicate by Aaron Stevens, PM 2Ring, Norbert Schuch, Qmechanic Aug 13 at 10:52

This question was marked as an exact duplicate of an existing question.

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    $\begingroup$ Didn't you ask about this a few days ago? Please see physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714 about how to ask questions here relating to homework-like problems. $\endgroup$ – PM 2Ring Aug 13 at 9:42
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    $\begingroup$ Yes I did ask this few days ago. But I did not provide my solution which I tried. So I assume that was my mistake. But here I clearly have provided my solution. So how is it a homework question? $\endgroup$ – Asad Ahmad Aug 13 at 10:30
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    $\begingroup$ I am just asking whether my given solution is correct or is there some changes needed to it. $\endgroup$ – Asad Ahmad Aug 13 at 10:31
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    $\begingroup$ I agree that this version is better than the one you deleted, but it's a "check my work" question, as described in the physics.meta link. $\endgroup$ – PM 2Ring Aug 13 at 10:34
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    $\begingroup$ Please read carefully our guidelines for homework and exercise questions as well as check-my-work questions. We intend our questions to be potentially useful to a broader set of users than just the one asking, and we prefer conceptual questions over those just asking for a specific computation. $\endgroup$ – Emilio Pisanty Aug 13 at 10:54