Pages 24-25 of my textbook, Optics by Hecht, says the following:
Using the above definitions we can write a number of equivalent expressions for the traveling harmonic wave: $$\psi = A\sin k(x \mp vt)$$ $$\psi = A\sin 2 \pi \left(\dfrac{x}{\lambda} \mp \dfrac{t}{\tau} \right)$$ $$\psi = A\sin 2 \pi (\kappa x \mp vt)$$ $$\psi = A\sin (kx \mp \omega t)$$ $$\psi = A\sin 2 \pi \nu \left( \dfrac{x}{v} \mp t \right)$$ ... Note that all these idealized waves are of infinite extent. That is, for any fixed value of $t$, there is no mathematical limitation on $x$, which varies from $- \infty$ to $+ \infty$. Each such wave has a single constant frequency and is therefore monochromatic or, even better, monoenergetic. Real waves are never monochromatic. Even a perfect sinusoidal generator cannot have been operating forever. Its output will unavoidably contain a range of frequencies, albeit a small one, just because the wave does not extend back to $t = - \infty$. This all waves comprise a band of frequencies, and when that band is narrow the wave is said to be quasimonochromtic.
These are the problems I'm having:
- It does not explain how time is relevant to a wave being monochromatic; so why does the fact that physical waves do not extend back to $t = -\infty$ mean that physical monochromatic waves are an impossibility?
- As relating to 1, how do the equations of the idealized harmonic waves imply that the wave exists for all time? Time $t$ is an independent variable of the equations, which is free to be selected by us, so I'm a little confused about this.
I have read several explanations of this, both on this website and on others, but these explanations do not seem to sufficiently clarify my two points above.
I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to clarify this.