In Srednicki's textbook Quantum Field Theory, Problem 94.2 considers a massless quark represented by a pair of Weyl fermions $\chi$ and $\xi$. Part a) asks us to show that the lagrangian is invariant under a Peccei-Quinn transformation $\chi \rightarrow e^{i\alpha} \chi$, $\xi \rightarrow e^{i\alpha} \xi$, $\Phi \rightarrow e^{-2i\alpha}\Phi$, where $\Phi$ is a complex scalar field that interacts with $\chi$ and $\xi$ to form the Yukawa interaction $\mathcal{L}_{Yuk} = y \Phi \chi\xi + h.c.$ ... From this I guess that the Peccei-Quinn transformation is a transformation in which the two fermions transform by the same phase factor. However, the answer states that,
If we define a Dirac field $\Psi = \left( \begin{array}{cols} \chi \\ \xi^{\dagger} \end{array} \right)$, then the PQ transformation is $\Psi \rightarrow e^{-i\alpha \gamma_{5}} \Psi$, ...
However, if $\Psi \rightarrow e^{-i\alpha \gamma_{5}} \Psi$, then $\chi \rightarrow e^{-i\alpha\gamma_{5}} \chi$, $\xi \rightarrow e^{i\alpha\gamma_{5}} \xi$; so $\chi$ and $\xi$ do not transform by the same phase factor. I am puzzled. What is Peccei-Quinn transformation?