According to REF 1 equation 3, a SWAP operation can be achieved via the Heisenberg Hamiltonian for spins $H=J(t)\mathbf{S}_1\mathbf{S_2}$
$U^{1/2}_{SWAP}=e^{-i\frac{\pi}{8}}\exp\left(i\frac{\pi}{2}\mathbf{S}_1\mathbf{S}_2\right)$
where $\int_0^td\tau J(\tau)=\pi/2$
I wrote out the expression of $U^{1/2}_{SWAP}$ and it indeed results into the matrix $U^{1/2}_{SWAP} =\left(\begin{array}{cccc}{1} & {0} & {0} & {0} \\ {0} & {\frac{1}{2}(1+i)} & {\frac{1}{2}(1-i)} & {0} \\ {0} & {\frac{1}{2}(1-i)} & {\frac{1}{2}(1+i)} & {0} \\ {0} & {0} & {0} & {1}\end{array}\right)$
The physical interpretation of the term $\exp\left(i\frac{\pi}{2}\mathbf{S}_1\mathbf{S}_2\right)$ is by coupling two electron spins in quantum dots via a tunnel coupling $t_0(t)$, $J=4t_0(t)^2/U$, where $U$ is the coulomb interaction between the electrons, for a time such that the SWAP operation is achieved and then turning off the coupling.
But how do I interpret the prefactor $e^{-i\pi/8}$ in physical terms?