The spin for Dirac fermions is defined as: $$\Sigma_{i} \equiv \frac{1}{4}\epsilon_{ijk}\sigma_{jk}$$ Without using an explicit representation for the matrices, I would like to show that the spin operator can be written as: $$\Sigma_{i}=\frac{1}{2} \gamma_{5} \gamma_{0} \gamma_{i}$$


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