# Can application of force contract wavelength of particles

When I put the de broglie relation for momentum in Newton's law F=dp/dt

I saw that in some way F is inversely proportional to wavelength. So if we apply greater force, the shorter the wavelength gets.

Does it mean that the applied force is contracting the indivisual constituent particle?...I am not talking for whole object.

And now suppose if there were two partcles as two added quantum waves, appearing as one.

Now if we apply force then when they will contract onto themselves we will see as if one particle disintegrated/brokedown into two.

Am i getting it correct? Please answer and comment