Just thinking about liquids and Pascal's law when, this question came. Ideal liquids, I understand, are deemed to be incompressible, which simplifies our problems while decently holding good for some real-life situations.
But, is there some deeper underlying meaning behind the incompressiblity of liquids? Can we arrive at this indepensible property of ideal liquids rather than just assuming it?
My thoughts:
- Is it because we assume that the liquid is already occupying the minimum possible volume?
- Or because it we assume replusive forces which are generated when we try to compress the liquid which prevent any compression?
- Is something else the matter?
Note that these are just naive speculations and I would be really grateful if my doubts could be clarified.
Edit: The scope of this question is restricted strictly to conditions where the approximation of incompressiblity of liquids holds good.