Just thinking about liquids and Pascal's law when, this question came. Ideal liquids, I understand, are deemed to be incompressible, which simplifies our problems while decently holding good for some real-life situations.
But, is there some deeper underlying meaning behind the incompressiblity of liquids? Can we arrive at this indepensible property of ideal liquids rather than just assuming it?
- Is it because we assume that the liquid is already occupying the minimum possible volume?
- Or because it we assume replusive forces which are generated when we try to compress the liquid which prevent any compression?
- Is something else the matter?
Note that these are just naive speculations and I would be really grateful if my doubts could be clarified.
Edit: The scope of this question is restricted strictly to conditions where the approximation of incompressiblity of liquids holds good.