1
$\begingroup$

I was reading over combined systems and operators acting on a single system within the combined system, and am confused by the math.

For example, we have individual qubit states for subsystems $A$ and $B$ that, as a combined system, produce the state:

\begin{align} A\otimes B &= \begin{bmatrix} a_{0}b_{0} \\ a_{0}b_{1} \\ a_{1}b_{0} \\ a_{1}b_{1} \end{bmatrix} \end{align}

We have an operator $O$ that acts on subsystem $A$. To express this on the combined state, it is simply (where $I$ is the identity matrix of the same dimension as $A$ and $B$) \begin{align} (O\otimes I)(A\otimes B) \end{align}

But why is this? I've been reading a text that says this combined operator changes only the coefficients $a_0$ and $a_1$, while leaving $b_0$ and $b_1$ unchanged. But I don't see that. I see this operation as changing whatever the value of the product of $a_i$ and $b_j$ is.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Welcome to SE! Another way of saying what your text claims is $$(O\otimes I)(A\otimes B)=(OA)\otimes B.$$ To prove this to yourself, you could write a general $O$, say $O=\begin{pmatrix}w&x\\y&z\end{pmatrix}$, and then just evaluate both sides of the above equation directly for $A\equiv\begin{pmatrix}a_0\\a_1\end{pmatrix}$ and $B\equiv\begin{pmatrix}b_0\\b_1\end{pmatrix}$ (i.e., for the LHS take the tensor product $O\otimes I$ first, then multiply $A\otimes B$ by this, and for the RHS multiply $A$ by $O$ first, then take the tensor product with $B$).

You will find that the equation indeed holds; this is the sense in which $A$ "just acts on" the state of the first qubit.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks! I see that now. I guess it was just the wording that confused me. $\endgroup$
    – lumicoh
    May 19, 2019 at 19:22

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.