# Question on de Broglie hypothesis [duplicate]

I have read about de Broglie hypothesis that matter like light can also exhibit wave particle duality. This gave rise to the following questions in my mind.

1. The wavelength for electrons is significant. So does that mean that electrons are both particles and waves at the same time or they show different behaviour in different experiments. Or they are only waves.

2. I cannot understand why only moving objects will possess a wavelength.

3. What kind of waves will electrons be like light is an electromagnetic wave.

4. If electrons behave like waves then will the electric current flowing in wires also be considered as waves.

Please provide me the explanation. Thank you very much

## marked as duplicate by John Rennie quantum-mechanics StackExchange.ready(function() { if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return; $('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function() { var$hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');$hover.hover( function() { $hover.showInfoMessage('', { messageElement:$msg.clone().show(), transient: false, position: { my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 }, dismissable: false, relativeToBody: true }); }, function() { StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages(); } ); }); }); May 17 at 11:01

2. Not all particles in QM can be given a definite wavelength. Definite wavelength is only possible if the particle is strongly de-localized. Lets say you have a particle described by wavefunction $$\psi\left(\mathbf{r},\,t\right)$$. One extreme is then that location of particle is precise, i.e. point in space and time. Another extreme is that location of particle is nearly arbitrary, so probability of finding the particle is $$\left|\psi\left(\mathbf{r},\, t\right)\right|^2=const$$ for all positions $$\mathbf{r}$$. Basic maths, coupled with translational invariance of free space then tell you that $$\psi\left(\mathbf{r},\, t\right)\propto\exp\left(i\mathbf{k}.\mathbf{r}\right)$$, for some vector $$\mathbf{k}$$. Wavelength is then $$\lambda_{Broglie}=2\pi/\left|\mathbf{k}\right|$$. Wether particle is (inertially) moving or not does not change this logic (but does have stipulations for the value of $$\mathbf{k}$$)