I am currently reading a derivation of Rayleigh-Jeans law for cavity radiation from Eisberg and Resnick 1 . The authors derive the law by considering a cavity with metallic walls. In the book, the authors state
Now, since electromagnetic radiation is a transverse vibration with the electric field vector $\mathbf{E}$ perpendicular to the propagation direction, and since the propagation direction for this component is perpendicular to the wall in question, its electric field vector $\mathbf{E}$ is parallel to the wall. A metallic wall cannot, however, support an electric field parallel to the surface, since charges can always flow in such a way as to neutralize the electric field. Therefore, $\mathbf{E}$ for this component must always be zero at the wall. That is, the standing wave associated with the $x$-component of the radiation must have a node (zero amplitude) at $x = 0$.
But blackbodies need not be made of metallic walls. The walls can be insulating as well which can support a non-zero electric field. Then how does Rayleigh-Jeans law hold for non-metallic blackbodies (eg. stars)?
Also, the authors consider a sinusoidal wave-function for the electric field standing wave in the cavity.
The electric field for one-dimensional electromagnetic standing waves can be described mathematically by the function $$E\,(x, t) = E_0 \sin {(2 \pi x / \lambda)} \sin {(2 \pi v t)} \tag{1-6}$$ where $\lambda$ is the wavelength of the wave, $v$ is its frequency, and $E_0$ is its maximum amplitude.
Why do we need that the time and space dependence of the electric field to be sinusoidal? Shouldn't any standing wave which has nodes at the same points suffice?
Since any wave can be described as a sum of sinusoidal components using Fourier analysis, why don't we write the electric field as such and the proceed further?
Reference:
- Eisberg, R.; Resnick, R. Quantum Physics of Atoms, Molecules, Solids, Nuclei, and Particles, 2nd ed.; Wiley: Hoboken, NJ, 1985, pp. 6-12.