I was asked today what percentage of the EM spectrum we can see. It looks like a simple question, and yet I don't know how to answer it.
I know that the visible light has wavelengths between $3.8 \times 10^{-7}$ m and $7.4 \times 10^{-7}$ m, but this should amount to 0% compared to the whole, infinite range of possible wavelengths.
Even if we consider the existence of a upper limit for the wavelength, say the width of the observable universe ($1.4 \times 10^{10}$ ly = $1.3 \times 10^{26}$ m), the percentage is so close to zero ($2.7 \times 10^{-31}$%) that I don't feel it's in any way meaningful.
I also thought of using a logarithmic scale, which requires a lower limit as well as an upper one, say the Planck length ($1.6 \times 10^-35$ m). In this case the percentage is 0.48%, which is more meaningful, and yet I'm not sure the idea of using a logarithmic scale is actually a good one or if it's just something I constructed in order to obtain a nicer number.
Can someone help me understand which one of these explanations is valid, or construct something better?